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Destino · Aug 19th, 2008, 07:10 PM

Your question is absurd. On one hand you understand that the Promised Messiah (as) was a NON-law bearing prophet, yet you wonder why he did not "make" his own shariah.

I think you should read pages 9-14 of Fiqh Ahmadiyya volume 2.

Aug 19th, 2008, 07:10 PM	#13 (permalink)
Destino Member Join Date: May 15, 2003 - 7:36 pm Posts: 435	Your question is absurd. On one hand you understand that the Promised Messiah (as) was a NON-law bearing prophet, yet you wonder why he did not "make" his own shariah. I think you should read pages 9-14 of Fiqh Ahmadiyya volume 2.